Home

Browse New Titles
Browse by Subject
Browse by Title
Browse by Author

Ministry & Liturgy
Visual Arts Awards

Celebrating
The Lectionary

Liturgical Catechesis

Software

Sign up for News
Request Print Catalog
Print Order Form
Reprint Permission
Customer Service

Authors & Writers
Advertisers
Bookstores
Media

News Releases

Artists Directory
Parish Resource Directory
Classified Ads
Links

About the Company
Employment
Contact Us

Discussion Forums
   

Wedding at Cana


[View the Replies] [Post a Reply] [Message List] [Help]

Posted by Joe A. on January 23, 2004 at 14:03:07:

The gospel reading last Sunday was, of course, the wedding at Cana. I think that this passage raises a number of important questions, and one where preaching is a key issue.
What I am talking about centers around Jesus' response to his mother, where he says "Woman, what does this concern of yours have to do with me; my hour has not yet come". His mother responds by telling the waiters "Do whatever he tells you".
I think that almost every homily that I have heard addresses these lines in some way; most have tried to express that it doesn't really mean what it sounds like. My parish priest on Sunday stated that "This is an inadequate translation; it really means "our concerns are one and the same""
Yet, every serious Biblical scholar that I have ever read (including members of the Pontifical Biblical Commission) regard Jesus' statement to his mother as a rebuke.
To me, this is a huge difference. In interpretation 1 above, Mary "calls for the miracle", getting Jesus to respond to her with an attitude of "Well, mother, I'd rather not, but I'll do it for you". Interpretation 2 has his mother looking for a non-miraculous solution, with Jesus' miracle being a surprise (Jesus always gives us more thatn we expect), though his mother's response is that of a true disciple - "Do whatever he tells you".
I guess it is obvious that I think that interpretation 2 is the more valid - I should say that before moving on. But I think that those who advocate the first interpretation see this line from John and it "does not compute" - how could Jesus rebuke Mary, when MAry (in their view) understands him perfectly, better that anyone else. Consequently, they come to the conclusion that something must be lost in the translation, and theologize in spite of the text rather than from the text.
Yet, I could see that if the second interpretation were preached (I have heard it far less frequently, but I have heard it), these same people, because a rebuke of Mary "does not compute", see these interpreters, scholarly or not, as abandoning a near and dear idea, one that to them seems very Catholic.
How do we interpret Sacred Tradition here? Is the idea that Mary understands Jesus better than anyone else a capital T tradition or a small t tradition? Is it essential to the faith, or should we follow the conclusions of our leading scholars and move on. It seems that no matter how it is preached, someone is furious. I was apoplectic when my priest said it was an inadequate translation - it seemed to me that he was (Perhaps unconsciously) bending the truth to suit his particular devotion/point of view. But I bet others would react the same way to the other side, scholarship or no scholarship.
This being so, how can we speak to each other? How can we be in communion with each other in any real sense?
Thoughts?


Replies:



Post a Reply

Name:
E-Mail:

Subject:

Comments:

Optional Link URL:
Link Title:
Optional Image URL:


[View the Replies] [Post a Reply] [Message List] [Help]


Home | About Resource Publications | Contact us
What's New on This Site | Site Guide
Copyright © 1995–2006 Resource Publications
160 E. Virginia Street #290, San Jose, CA 95112-5876 
E-mail: info@rpinet.com
Toll Free: 888-273-7782,  Phone: 408-286-8505,  Fax: 408-287-8748